What is the fallibility statement when it comes to White privilege in the US?
This argument essentially argues that WP is an invisible, chronic thing that permeates our society and that cannot be grasped in a concrete manner, but can be used to explain all under/over-representations of whites in certain economic, class or professional strata.
There seems to be a near infinite number of ways on which we could classify a group as “privileged”. Leftists conveniently focus on the areas of American life in which whites excel. Once, I was told that a hotel failing to provide shampoo appropriate to African American hair was an example of white privilege. If that is the case, should we interpret white male suicide rates as indicative of oppression? Hispanics, Asians and African Americans are a practically tied for lowest suicide rates in the US.
Might wanted to die and successfully carrying out the act at least posit hypothetical oppression? But no, as good leftists, let us cherry-pick the oppression.
Instead of interpreting stratification in terms of magical good vs evil, may there not be *other* explanations? The invisible number that gets added to your D+D dice roll lacks any concreteness. What exactly is the number? Does it get added to every roll, in exactly the same quantity? Is the number ever inverted?
Do we then superimpose this concept into something called Jewish or Asian privilege? Jews and Hindus have the highest median household income in the United States. Are they getting magical, invisible numbers that nobody can measure added to their dice rolls, also?
Mike,
I really enjoyed the analogy. It helped clarify things for me. Can’t wait to share my new learnings when the next opportunity presents itself.
Thanks; I bet you did not expect this when you taught me how to play D&D. 🙂
What is the fallibility statement when it comes to White privilege in the US?
This argument essentially argues that WP is an invisible, chronic thing that permeates our society and that cannot be grasped in a concrete manner, but can be used to explain all under/over-representations of whites in certain economic, class or professional strata.
There seems to be a near infinite number of ways on which we could classify a group as “privileged”. Leftists conveniently focus on the areas of American life in which whites excel. Once, I was told that a hotel failing to provide shampoo appropriate to African American hair was an example of white privilege. If that is the case, should we interpret white male suicide rates as indicative of oppression? Hispanics, Asians and African Americans are a practically tied for lowest suicide rates in the US.
http://www.sprc.org/scope/racial-ethnic-disparities
Might wanted to die and successfully carrying out the act at least posit hypothetical oppression? But no, as good leftists, let us cherry-pick the oppression.
Instead of interpreting stratification in terms of magical good vs evil, may there not be *other* explanations? The invisible number that gets added to your D+D dice roll lacks any concreteness. What exactly is the number? Does it get added to every roll, in exactly the same quantity? Is the number ever inverted?
Do we then superimpose this concept into something called Jewish or Asian privilege? Jews and Hindus have the highest median household income in the United States. Are they getting magical, invisible numbers that nobody can measure added to their dice rolls, also?
And by fallibility statement, I mean how is this thesis falsifiable?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fallibilism